I have another question:
If I go to a store, and buy a hammer, I pay tax on the hammer. Then I sell the hammer to my friend for $5, there is no tax on that. If he sells the hammer to his friend for $2, or $40, there is no tax on that either. Sales tax is charged ONCE.... not 50 times. That hammer, isn't taxed everytime it goes from one guy to the next.
How is it then, that a car is taxed over and over? If the original buyer paid tax, and he sells it to me used, why should I have to pay tax on that again? Because they can control it and they can't control what happens with a hammer? because I have to register a car and I don't have to do it to my hammer?
What is it that I am not understanding, this whole principle makes no sense to me. Why is a car taxed over and over and over?
The answer is, tax laws are written in such a way that some products are treated differently from others. Some states apply sales tax to groceries (food products) purchased at the grocery store; others do not tax groceries. Some states apply sales tax to services; others don't. Some states don't even have sales tax. Some counties and cities have their own sales tax in addition to state sales tax.
Just to give an example of specific rules, the State of Illinois has a 6.25 percent statewide sales tax. Counties and cities in the Chicago area have additional sales taxes of another 0-2.75 percent, so in the city of Chicago, the overall sales tax on most products (not groceries) is 9.00 percent. If you buy a used car from a dealer and you live in Chicago, you will pay 9 percent of the purchase price as sales tax. If you buy a used car from a private party, though, the tax law is different; as noted
here, if the purchase price is less than $15K, you pay $25-390, depending on the model year, and if the purchase price is $15K or more, you pay $750-1500, depending on the purchase price, but it's never more than 5 percent of the purchase price. Why is the tax rate different for a private party purchase than for a purchase from a dealer? Because the law says it is.
Why are the laws written so that cars are treated differently from hammers? Two things distinguish cars from hammers. First, cars must be titled and registered with the government, which means that there are reporting requirements for changes of ownership. Second, purchases of cars involve relatively large dollar amounts. If used cars cost $5 and used hammers cost thousands of dollars, the tax laws would probably be written such that there would be specific rules and tax rates applied to sales of used hammers. (The same way, for example, that many jurisdictions apply specific taxes to sales of houses, although those are called real estate transfer tax, rather than sales tax, but it's the same idea.)
Incidentally, I'm not sure whether your sale of a $5 hammer (or a $5000 hammer) to your neighbor would or would not theoretically require that sales tax be paid on the transaction; you claim there is no tax, but in fact, you need to consult your local tax laws. It's quite possible that there
is a sales tax that, by law, is supposed to be paid, even on a small transaction. Just because a dollar amount is small, doesn't mean that there is no applicable law, but rather, that the law isn't enforced for small dollar amounts as a practical expedient. I can also assure you that if you register a business with the state for the sale of used tools to the public, you will be responsible for collecting and paying sales tax to the government on those sales, if that's required by the laws in your area.